Collective Rights Logic Refuted Part 1
Lets look at one version of the collective rights theory: the 2nd Amendment grants states the right to maintain militias, not individuals the right to own arms.
Fine, well, doesn't the Constitution talk about state militias? It does!
Why would the drafters of the Constitution write provisions into that document allowing the states the maintain militias and then later, when they come up with 10 extra special rules to go along with the Constitution, make rule #2 a redundant provision? Good question.
Why would the drafters of the Bill of Rights place in the #2 spot in that document an amendment that means nothing to individuals, surrounded by other amendments that apply to individuals?
Yes, it is true the 10th Amendment reserves rights to the states (and the people), but the 2nd Amendment refers to "the people." Why would the drafters write "the people" when they meant states?
No matter how many word games you play with "militia" and "people" and "arms," the collective rights interpretation still renders an entire amendment to the Constitution null and void. Probably not what the founders had in mind...
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